Tear Em Asunder

RamNation General Discussion Board


Joined: 08/28/2008 Posts: 11055
Likes: 4596

Holy crap, I’ll try to go slow. If 60% have had 2

shots then all of those 60% have had at least one. Ergo, at least 60% have had at least one shot. 60% > 50%. Is this sinking in?

I’ll try again, if there’s 10 people and 60% have had two shots, that’s 6 people. If 0 more have had no shots that’s still 6 people who have had one (or more). So 60%, not 50%, have had at least one shot. Your math is not possible.

I won’t even get into the fact the the J&J shot only requires one shot.

You and your requiring sources. Smh.

(In response to this post by Hopsblues)

Posted: 07/19/2021 at 7:05PM


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